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Why was the following question closed as "unclear what you're asking"?

Could the concept of “finite free groups” be possible?

The question seems perfectly fine to me, with no unclearness or ambiguity whatsoever. Do such groups exist? No. There is even a rather fine answer explaining how one could try and make such a concept work using pro-finite groups.

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  • $\begingroup$ For future reference, when posting a meta discussion concerning a specific question, please always comment on the original with a link to the meta discussion. $\endgroup$ – Willie Wong Nov 26 '13 at 11:10
  • $\begingroup$ Incidentally, the question is now re-opened. $\endgroup$ – Willie Wong Nov 26 '13 at 11:10
  • $\begingroup$ @WillieWong Thanks, I didn't think. $\endgroup$ – user1729 Nov 26 '13 at 11:15
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    $\begingroup$ Also, the question now has one close vote. So although it has been reopened there seems to be a divergence of opinion. $\endgroup$ – user1729 Nov 26 '13 at 11:15
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Strongly agree. The user doesn't know how to formalize his/her intution of what a "finite free group" should be and is curious about a way to do so; that's part of the question. Trying to figure out how to make a vague question precise is a key part of mathematics and is often (e.g. in this case!) more important than the answer to the question. We shouldn't discourage this behavior.

(Admittedly, in this particular example, the user in question has not shown much work toward formalizing this concept, but it's almost certainly not a homework question, so I'm not inclined to be upset about this.)

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