I've seen several cases of other users editing a question to change all instances of an asker's $\mathbb{Z}_n$ to $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$, saying that the former is an incorrect notation. I don't want to call specific people out if they are genuinely trying to improve the site, but it is really the policy to enforce notation on those who come to ask questions?
Specifically in this example, $\mathbb{Z}_n$ is a quite old, well-established, and space-saving notation for the ring of integers modulo $n$. Yes the symbol does have other meanings, but so do the symbols $+$ and $0$ have multiple meanings. We aren't machines, so we can understand from context what is meant. In fact, the alternative meanings for the symbol $\mathbb{Z}_n$ are so comparatively advanced that I doubt anyone running into $\mathbb{Z}_n$ as the ring of integers mod $n$ would fail to realize what the notation means from context of the question.
It does not help the asker to rewrite his own question to make it more difficult for him to read or understand. Moreover, what is the message we are sending to the asker? "We don't care what convention your teacher or book uses; if you don't write math in the correct notation we will make sure you do"? Aside from being factually wrong (there is no one correct notation, there are only competing conventions), isn't this exactly the kind of arrogant attitude we should be discouraging if we want people to embrace the subject, and come here to ask stimulating, thought provoking questions?
If this is not policy here, then what should we do or say when we see someone doing this?
$
to$$
or by inserting\Large
in the $\TeX$ expression. An example of the latter: $$\int \frac{e^{\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{dx+e}}}{\sin \pi x}dx \implies \Large{\int \frac{e^{\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{dx+e}}}{\sin \pi x}dx}$$ What's your stand on this? (I might add that to the best of my knowledge all such edits have been approved, but I think that the reviewers' decisions weren't unanimous.) $\endgroup$\Large
: $$\int \frac{e^{\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{dx+e}}}{\sin \pi x}dx \implies {\int \frac{\Large e^{\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{dx+e}}}{\sin \pi x}dx}$$ $\endgroup$\Large
), but I would be hesitant to approve if it was the only change on a post that was really old... (because the edit would bump the question) $\endgroup$\Large
, this was just a fictious example.) $\endgroup$