Apart from a question which indeed required a very long answer, why does Any general hints on how to prove that two functions$\ f(n)$ and$\ g(m_1,m_2,...,m_{28})$ never have a common natural divisor? have no answers? I had thought it would have been easily answered, it seems way easier to me, but I doubt it'll recieve any in these conditions. I'm seeing only a few views. What's wrong with it?

P.S. It is also true that I'd like an answer as soon as possible, since together with the other question, I've been waiting for a while, and I really need this.


1 Answer 1


I'm seeing only a few views.

That already explains what is going on: it's not that the question is bad, it's just that few people are looking at questions right now.

Saturday evening in the Americas, night in Europe, weekend everywhere.

  • $\begingroup$ Yeah, I guess you're right. $\endgroup$ Oct 11, 2014 at 23:08
  • $\begingroup$ Does your new username mean I can force you to fail? $\endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila Mod
    Oct 24, 2014 at 3:17

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