-1
$\begingroup$

Apart from a question which indeed required a very long answer, why does Any general hints on how to prove that two functions$\ f(n)$ and$\ g(m_1,m_2,...,m_{28})$ never have a common natural divisor? have no answers? I had thought it would have been easily answered, it seems way easier to me, but I doubt it'll recieve any in these conditions. I'm seeing only a few views. What's wrong with it?

P.S. It is also true that I'd like an answer as soon as possible, since together with the other question, I've been waiting for a while, and I really need this.

$\endgroup$
1
3
$\begingroup$

I'm seeing only a few views.

That already explains what is going on: it's not that the question is bad, it's just that few people are looking at questions right now.

Saturday evening in the Americas, night in Europe, weekend everywhere.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah, I guess you're right. $\endgroup$ – Vincenzo Oliva Oct 11 '14 at 23:08
  • $\begingroup$ Does your new username mean I can force you to fail? $\endgroup$ – Asaf Karagila Oct 24 '14 at 3:17

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .