Reopening "Is most of the GM-AM Inequality in its codicil?"

The question in question asks whether the AM-GM inequality can be, in some sense, reduced to the case where there is equality. I think this is a reasonable question, and here is a proposed plan for an answer: one could outline a proof for the inequality, in which one brings two variables together, and shows that this decreases the GM without changing the AM; after finitely many such operations, we are left with the case of equality.

The OP also recently asked another contentious question, which doesn't make much sense to me, and was promptly closed. A possible different course of action, which might be less alienating, is to ask the OP to explain his motives better.

• don't accept the answer yet. I think questions with no accepted answers tend to get more views. :) And it is better to click the green check mark after either (a) question is re-opened or (b) the community decides it shouldn't be re-opened. Apr 30, 2011 at 0:42

First, I just want to note that the second question about $\pi(x)$ is not in fact promptly closed. As of the writing of this answer there are some close votes on it, but it is still open.