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The question: Show the equivalence of these definitions of independence of random variables

Two books give two different definitions of independence of random variables, and I am trying to show that they are equivalent.

I don't see what the problems is/are.

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    $\begingroup$ I reformatted your post. For one, your question was entirely in the title, and there was no question in the body -- this is not a good idea in general. Your list was also not formatted very well. It looks like very small things, but it's sometimes enough to lead people to the downvote button: something that looks like a bunch of formulas jumbled together is not very well received in general. $\endgroup$ – Najib Idrissi Nov 3 '15 at 15:53
  • $\begingroup$ @NajibIdrissi 1 Thanks for reformat. 2 Was it entirely in title? 'Why are these two definitions equivalent?' $\endgroup$ – BCLC Nov 3 '15 at 15:54
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    $\begingroup$ ...I added that sentence myself... It was not in your original question. $\endgroup$ – Najib Idrissi Nov 3 '15 at 15:54
  • $\begingroup$ @NajibIdrissi Going to edit more then following you. Thanks $\endgroup$ – BCLC Nov 3 '15 at 15:54
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    $\begingroup$ @NajibIdrissi HAHAHAHAHAHAHA dumb of me. Thanks a million! $\endgroup$ – BCLC Nov 3 '15 at 15:54
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    $\begingroup$ In general people won't read your whole question at a first glance. They will scan it, look for keywords, and probably above all a question mark. If the question mark appears at the end after a bunch of formulas, and the post looks bad from afar, most people will think "Oh, I need to read all that to even understand the question? Pass." and ignore it, or even worse downvote it. It could be the best question on the site from a mathematical point of view, if it's badly presented it will have more chance to be badly received. $\endgroup$ – Najib Idrissi Nov 3 '15 at 16:01
  • $\begingroup$ @NajibIdrissi Thanks a million for your feedback. $\endgroup$ – BCLC Nov 3 '15 at 16:10
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    $\begingroup$ @NajibIdrissi Post as answer? $\endgroup$ – BCLC Nov 3 '15 at 16:26

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