In this question, the user mentions a "source" for the problem. After going to his profile, I realized that this source is (may be?) the user's own website. Note however that such a source is not linked in the question, it is only mentioned. Note also that the source does not improve the post or clarify it in any way.
I feel this can be understood as self-advertising, but the situation is not so clear (particularly because of the lack of a link in the question itself). I've thought of editing that away, but I don't know if this is proper. So, my question is: Should we intervene or let it be?
EDIT: Just to clarify, the site being in the profile is not something which is an issue at all, in my opinion. I just mentioned it as being an evidence that the site mentioned is indeed of ownership of the user
EDIT 2: May be relevant to say that more than 10 questions by the user (out of 17) have that same reference, ipsis litteris.