I have observed that there is a user out there that I think is not being nice/polite/etc when he leaves comments on post.
I checked the activity and are some of them
what the heck is $f$?
Why is it not obvious that (1) converges if $𝑓∈𝐿^1(𝐺)$. Doesn't it obviously converge...? As a reminder, $𝑓∈𝐿^1(𝐺)$ implies $∫_𝐺|𝑓(𝑔)|𝑑𝑔<∞$, so obviously $∫_𝐻|𝑓(𝑔ℎ)|𝑑ℎ<∞$...
is what correct? do u want to end up with the uniform distribution? can you be more precise
any non-measurable set.........? am i missing something
you should say what $𝑎_𝑛=𝑐_𝑛+𝑂(𝑏_𝑛)$ means.....
you should say what $𝑓=ℎ+𝑂(𝑔)$ means....
And I did flag one of his comments and my flag was rejected.
This user also comments a lot of good hints/help/etc but even still I don't think that is a justification for letting him to write like that.
What should be done about it?