This question was just asked and quickly closed and downvoted, with 'lack of clarity' given as the reason. However I think the question is about as clear as it can be when it's asking about maths from a pre-rigorous standpoint. They have a particular, quite common, confusion about the empty set, and require an explanation of how the empty set is dealt with rigorously, and how this differs from pre-rigorous intuition about the empty set. I don't think I would have done as good a job of communicating where my confusion was coming from at the same stage of mathematical development. I posted an answer to it, though not one I'm wholly satisfied with.
I think people are viewing the question as unclear because it can be seen as arising from a double-meaning in English (contains nothing vs contains an object called nothing), and from a rigorous perspective, this is obvious, and seems trivial. But I don't think this is obvious from the perspective of someone just starting at set theory, and when the question is about a misunderstanding produced by ambiguity, I don't think it makes sense to close the question for containing ambiguity.
I see this as a question about an ambiguity, rather than an ambiguous question. It's like downvoting someone for misinterpreting the identity axiom of groups in a question about why the empty set isn't a group: if they knew how to avoid that misinterpretation, they wouldn't have the question anymore. So questions about confusions will, I think, necessarily be a bit confused, and the mark of a good question about a confusion is making legible what they are confused about- which I think this question does.
I also think this is a question that a lot of people at this stage of mathematical development would benefit from a good answer to, and which isn't particular to the phrasing chosen. There's a genuine conceptual subtlety here that requires explanation.
You can show that there is no set 'nothing' that the empty set contains very easily, which is largely a matter of pointing out the language confusion, but op's question was why the formalism disagrees with the intuition, which in my opinion is genuinely a question about mathematics, albeit a soft question. And if the question was closed because the community has taken the view that it isn't a question about mathematics, it should have been closed as off topic, rather than as unclear, which I would still disagree with, but which would be more comprehensible to me.
So I think this is actually a good, albeit basic, question, but this apparently puts me starkly at odds with the majority. So I want to ask: should this question have been closed as ambiguous? and if so, how are you determining that it is an ambiguous question rather than a question about an ambiguity?