This question on Lagrange multipliers was closed for being "unclear."
The actual question seems clear to me: When solving the system of equations for $\lambda$ in the typical Lagrange multiplier calculation, is it OK to reduce the equations to make solving easier? I admit it would be nice if the OP would say something about why they would think that might not be OK, but I still don't really see what's unclear.
There are currently 3 votes to reopen (one of them mine), and it seems to have gone through the review queue fully.
My apologies if I misunderstand "the natural course" of reopening, but I assume that's more or less done, having completed the review queue, albeit somewhat recently.