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Mathematics
Caio Lins's user avatar
Caio Lins's user avatar
Caio Lins's user avatar
Caio Lins
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Applied Mathematics student at Fundação Getúlio Vargas - Rio de Janeiro.

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Let $A_i$ be measurable and $\sum_{i = 1}^\infty \mu (A_i)^2 < \infty$. Is $\mu( \bigcap_{ i = 1}^\infty \bigcup_{m = i}^\infty A_m) = 0$?

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